Is "propitiation" the most butchered word in the Bible?

Does the Bible say anything about God pouring His wrath on Jesus? Or does it ever say that God's wrath is now satisfied because of Jesus? I heard these my whole life growing up - but are these ideas true? The answer is no. Even though there is not a single reference in the Bible that supports these concepts, they remain in our theologies and in our songs. The question is, where did they come from? As a part of our 'Twisted Bible' series, this week we will be looking at the meaning of "propitiation." We'll read today, and then tomorrow we will unpack Romans 3:21-26, which is the main passage that is used to support that God poured His wrath on Jesus to satisfy His anger.

(21) But now the righteousness of God has been manifested apart from the law, although the Law and the Prophets bear witness to it— (22) the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all who believe. For there is no distinction: (23) for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, (24) and are justified by his grace as a gift, through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus, (25) whom God put forward as a propitiation by his blood, to be received by faith. This was to show God's righteousness, because in his divine forbearance he had passed over former sins. (26) It was to show his righteousness at the present time, so that he might be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus. - Romans 3:21-26

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